Final Exam CCNA1

1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
• 0060.7320.D632
• 0060.7320.D631
• 0040.8517.44C3
• 0009.B2E4.EE03
• 0010.C2B4.3421

2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
• After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
• A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
• Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
• Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
• It uses a token system to avoid collisions.

3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
• PC
• switch
• router interface fa0/0
• router interface fa0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130

5. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
• The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.
• Host Y is assigned a multicast address.
• Host X and host Y belong to different networks.
• Host X is assigned a network address.

6. What is the result of using the clock rate 56000 command at the serial interface of the router?
• The interface is configured as a DCE device.
• The interface timers are cleared.
• The FastEthernet interface is made to emulate a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
• The IP address for the serial interface is configured.

7. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 127.0.0.1
• 196.1.105.6
• 132.11.9.99
• 10.0.0.1
• 172.16.9.10
• 46.1.1.97

8. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• TCP and UDP manage communication between multiple applications.
• TCP retransmits the packets for which the acknowledgment is not received.
• TCP acknowledges received data.
• UDP exchanges frames between the nodes of the network.
• TCP has no mechanism to acknowledge transmission errors.
• UDP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
• star
• ring
• point-to-point
• multi-access

10. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
• It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
• It is stored in NVRAM.
• It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
• It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?
• Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.
• The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.
• The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.
• The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.

12. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?
• It uses error control mechanisms.
• It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
• It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
• It uses multiple port numbers.

13. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?
• 10.0.0.254
• 192.168.0.249
• 192.168.0.250
• 10.0.1.254

14. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. Which three segments use Cable 2? (Choose three.)
• Segment 1
• Segment 2
• Segment 3
• Segment 4
• Segment 5
• Segment 6

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
• Three networks are needed.
• Two logical address ranges are required.
• A single broadcast domain is present.
• Three collision domains are present.
• Four networks are needed.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the IP configuration that is displayed? (Choose three.)
• The assigned address is a private address.
• The PC cannot communicate with the DNS server.
• The network can have 126 hosts.
• The prefix of the computer address is /26.
• The IP address is routable on the Internet.
• The IP address is a multicast address. 17. Which password restricts Telnet access to the router?
• enable
• enable secret
• console
• VTY

18. Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
• It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
• It provides out-of-band console access.
• It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
• It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router. 19. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
• access switch
• DHCP server
• hub
• router

20. Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem?
• Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.
• Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.
• Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0
• Reboot the router.

21. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, host A is sending data segments to host B. The flow control of the segments that are being exchanged is displayed. Which two statements are true about this communication? (Choose two.)
• The initial window size is determined via the two-way handshake.
• The window size for the TCP session that is represented is initially set to 3000 bytes.
• Acknowledgment number 3001 indicates that host A will send the next segment with sequence number 3001.
• Host B expects that the next received segment number will be 3000.
• No more acknowledgments will be exchanged.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?
• console
• Ethernet
• auxiliary
• serial 23. Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
• application layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer 24. What are two functions of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
• It segments and reorders the data.
• It exchanges data between programs that are running on the source and destination hosts.
• It controls how data is placed onto the media.
• It generates signals to represent the bits in each frame.
• It encapsulates each packet with a header and a trailer to transfer it across the local media. 25. Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?
• D,E,F,G
• A,H,B,C
• A,D,E,F
• A,D,E,G

26. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
• 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

27. Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?
The table will remain unaffected.
• The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa0/19 immediately.
• The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.
• The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.

28. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has connected the PC to the switch using a Category 6 UTP cable. Which two statements are true about this connection? (Choose two.)
• The cable that is used is an Ethernet crossover cable.
• The transmit pin of the cable is terminated to the receive pin.
• The maximum distance between the switch and the PC can be 100 m.
• The maximum supported bandwidth is 1000 Mb/s.
• The Category 6 cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link and is unusable for this type of connection.

29. Refer to the exhibit. A host is using NAT to connect to the Internet. Which three IP addresses enable this connection? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.63
• 10.1.1.37
• 10.1.1.39
• 10.1.1.32
• 10.1.1.60
• 10.1.1.2 30. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?
• Use the ipconfig command at the host.
• Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.
• Use the tracert command at the host.
• Use the ping command at the destination.

31. An organization wants to create a subnet of the IP network 172.16.0.0. This subnet will accommodate 1000 hosts. Which subnet mask should be assigned to this network?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128

32. Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to hub 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway can allow this host to function in the network?
• IP address: 172.16.31.36 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.30.1
• IP address: 172.16.31.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35

33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server configured at the host? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.1.99
• 192.168.2.100
• 10.10.10.32
• 192.168.1.5
• the IP address of the website resolver1.xyz.local

34. Which OSI layer offers ordered data reconstruction services?
• application layer
• network layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer

35. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many logical address ranges are required in this topology?
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

36. The network administrator wants to install a private application on a server. Which range of port numbers is normally assigned to this application to make it accessible by clients?
• 0 to 255
• 49152 to 65535
• 1024 to 49151
• 0 to 1023

37. Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)

• Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config-line)# password arj15

Router(config-line)# login
• This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.
• Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.
• This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.
• This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
• The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
• Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable

39. Which two types of media are useful for connecting two devices separated by a distance of 500 meters? (Choose two.)
• 10 BASE-T
• 1000 BASE-TX
• 10 BASE-2
• 1000 BASE LX
• 1000 BASE-SX 40. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
• the host portion of the IP address
• the network portion of the IP address
• host default gateway address
• the MAC address

41. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)
• This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
• The destination port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
• The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
• The destination port indicates that an SMTP session has been initiated.
• The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is accessing multiple servers. Which combination of port number and address will uniquely identify a particular process running on a specific server?
• MAC address of the server and port number of the service
• IP address of the host and port number of the service
• MAC address of the host and port number of the service
• IP address of the server and port number of the service

43. A network technician wants to configure an IP address on a router interface by using the ip address 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 command. Which prompt should the technician see when entering this command?
• Router>
• Router(config-if)#
• Router#
• Router(config)# 44. Refer to the exhibit. Host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which command can be run at host X to determine which intermediary device is responsible for this failure?
• telnet 192.168.1.1
• ping 192.168.1.1
• ftp 192.168.1.1
• tracert 192.168.1.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, PC1 sends a message to PC2. The frame received at PC2 is shown. What information in this frame determines the correct destination application?
• timing and synchronization bits
• destination and source physical addresses
• destination and source logical network addresses
• destination and source process numbers

46. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.160.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.192.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.0.159
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.0

47. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
• The contents of ROM will change.
• The contents of RAM will change.
• The contents of NVRAM will change.
• The contents of flash will change.

48. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.12.79/28
• 10.1.12.113/28
• 10.1.12.32/28
• 10.1.11.5/27
• 10.1.11.97/27
• 10.1.11.128/27

49. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?
• 192.168.1.191
• 192.168.1.101
• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.1.254

50. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
• It uniquely identifies each host.
• It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks.
• It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address.
• It is not a configurable address.
• It is a physical address.
• It identifies the host from the first part of the address.

CCNA1 Chapter 11

1. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory



2. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
enable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret ciscoenable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password classline console 0password ccna
enable secret ciscoenable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4

RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2

RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco

RouterB(config-vty)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0

RouterB(config-line)# password cisco

RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line aux 0

RouterB(config-line)# password cisco

RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line aux 0

RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco

RouterB(config-vty)# login

4. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

5. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
Router(config)# hostname Fontana

6. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

7. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

8. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
Console
Telnet
SSH

9. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
SSH

10. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
after a system restart
as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
global configuration mode
privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
enable mode

12. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
hot keys
context-check
context-sensitive
structured check
command override
command syntax check

13. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z

14. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

15. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
Console Port
16. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

CCNA1 Chapter 10

1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
connecting a PC to a router's console port
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
console interface

3. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

5. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

6. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096

7. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

8. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

9. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
rollover
patch cable

10. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
router
repeater

11. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
192.168.3.54

12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
both host A and B would be successful
host A would be successful, host B would fail
host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail

13. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
DB 60
Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
smart serial
RJ 45

14. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
2
3
4
5

15. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

16. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
They segment broadcast domains.
They interconnect different network technologies.
Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
router
hub
switch
wireless access point

18. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
5
7

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
Five broadcast domains are present.
Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
Five networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

20. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
crossover cable
straight through cable
rollover cable
V.35 cable

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

CCNA1 Chapter 9

1
In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
**Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.



2
Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

Network layer
Transport layer
**Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
**Data-link layer



3
Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

**the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
**the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable



4
What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

**addressing
**error detection
**frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution



5
When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

**The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <--- The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data. The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames. The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6
What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.) recognizes streams of bits
**identifies the network layer protocol
**makes the connection with the upper layers identifies the source and destination applications
**insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7
What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies? MAC sublayer Physical layer **Logical Link Control sublayer Network layer

8
Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
**A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.


9
Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes? header field - preamble and stop frame
**data field - network layer packet data field - physical addressing trailer field - FCS and SoF

10
Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway. A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
**Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host. A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
**A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11
Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
**Collisions can decrease network performance. It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols. Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance. CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

12
Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
application physical transport internet data link
**network access

13
What is the primary purpose of ARP? translate URLs to IP addresses
**resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14
Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
**No collisions will occur on this link. Only one of the devices can transmit at a time. The switch will have priority for transmitting data. The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15
Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
**A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
**A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16
Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
dynamically assigned
**copied into RAM during system startup layer 3 address
**contains a 3 byte OUI
**6 bytes long 32 bits long

17
Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.) reduction in cross-talk
**minimizing of collisions support for UTP cabling division into broadcast domains
**increase in the throughput of communications

18
What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.) coaxial thicknet
**copper UTP coaxial thinnet
**optical fiber shielded twisted pair

19
Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below. 85 90
**BA A1 B3 1C

20
After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data? the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
**any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first those that began transmitting at the same time

CCNA1 Chapter 8

1 Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

**backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable

2 In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?

BNC
RJ-11
**RJ-45
Type F

3 When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
**when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

4 With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?

**the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

5 Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?

Presentation
Transport
Data Link
**Physical

6 An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?

light injector
**OTDR
TDR
multimeter

7 XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)

coax
Cat4 UTP
**Cat5 UTP
**Cat6 UTP
STP

8 What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
**Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

9 What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

**goodput
frequency
amplitude
**throughput
crosstalk
**bandwidth

10

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
**crossover cable
straight-through cable

11 In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?

coax
**fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

12 Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

13 Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

electrical
optical
**wireless
acoustic

14 Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

**It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
**It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

15 Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
**generally uses lasers as the light source

16 What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

**more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17 What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
**the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

18 What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?

**create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

CCNA1 Chapter 7

1 Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

**non-deterministic
**less overhead
one station transmits at a time
**collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing

2 What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
**facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated

3



Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

1
2
4
**8
16

4 What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
**Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5



Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for http://www.server?

00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
**00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af

6 What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

**They are 48 binary bits in length.
**They are considered physical addresses.
**They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

7


Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
**source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
**source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

8 What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

network layer addressing
**media sharing
application processes
**logical topology
intermediary device function

9 What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
**is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

10 What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

**Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
**Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

11 Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
**Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
**Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

12 Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

LLC
**MAC
HDLC
NIC

13 What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

**Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
**defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
**Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

14 What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
**The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

15 What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)

The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
**The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
**The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

16 What is a function of the data link layer?

provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
**provides for the exchange data over a common local media

17 Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

the Layer 3 protocol selected
**the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
**the physical layer implementation
**the number of hosts to be interconnected

18 What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

define the logical topology
provide media access control
**support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame

19 A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?

logical topology
**physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology

20


Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
**Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

CCNA1 Chapter 6

1) A user types http://www.cisco.com into a web browser address textbox. What does http://www.cisco.com represent?
* the IP address of a web server
a physical network address
the closest router interface to the source
the source IP address in the data transmission

2) What type of server would use IMAP?
DNS
DHCP
* e-mail
FTP
Telnet
web

3) Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network client in a corporate environment?
DNS
* DHCP
e-mail
FTP
Telnet
web

4) Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
* TCP
SMTP
UDP
SNMP

5) Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
UDP
* FTP
IP
* SMTP
TCP

6) Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
* Application
Physical
* Internet
* Network Access
Presentation

7) You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?
* UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.

8) Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?
Uniform Resource Locator
Network redirector server
SNMP server
* DNS server

9) Which application is most likely used to translate http://www.cisco.com to 198.133.219.25?
DHCP
* DNS
FTP
HTTP
POP
SMTP

10)

Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?
IM
FTP
* HTTP
SNMP
VoIP

11) Which port number is used by SMTP?
20
21
* 25
26
110

12) Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
FTP
HTTP
TFTP
* SMTP
POP
SNMP

13) What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other logged in users in real time?
blog
e-mail
web mail
* instant messaging

14) An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?
The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
* The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.

15) What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?
protocol hierarchy
protocol modeling
* protocol stack
protocol layering

16) hat three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
source IP address
* source MAC address
destination IP address
* destination MAC address
* error-checking information

17) What information is contained in an IP header?
* source and destination IP addresses
source and destination MAC addresses
only destination IP and MAC addresses
both source and destination IP and MAC addresses

18) Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?
4
2
* 1
3

19) A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?
removes the IP header
removes the TCP header
passes data to the application layer
* removes the Ethernet header and trailer

20) A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?
1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits

* 1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits

21) What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
It breaks network communications into larger parts.
It increases complexity.
* It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

22) What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?
data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
* physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical

CCNA1 Chapter 5

1 In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?

**destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address

2 What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
**source and destination IP address

3 In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
**The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.

4 Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

type-of-service
identification
flags
**time-to-live
header checksum

5 Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?

host portion
broadcast address
**network portion
gateway address

6

Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?

192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
**192.133.219.1

7 If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
**The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

8 What is the purpose of a default gateway?

physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
**identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9 What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?

dynamic
interior
**static
standard

10 When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)

The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
**The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
**The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11 What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)

gateways
**purpose
physical addressing
software version
**geographic location
**ownership

12 What is a component of a routing table entry?

the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
**the next-hop address

13 Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)

**router
hub
switch
**firewall
access point
bridge

14 What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)

too few broadcasts
**performance degradation
**security issues
limited management responsibility
**host identification
protocol compatibility

15

Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?

3
**4
5
7
8
11

16 Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)

If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
**If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
**If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
**If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.

17

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?

10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
**10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0

18

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)

**Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
**Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19

Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)

**192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
**192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20 What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)

require no device configuration
**provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
**consume bandwidth to exchange route information
prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21 What statement describes the purpose of a default route?

A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
**A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

CCNA1 Chapter 4

1. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
**The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.


2. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
**80
1024
1728


3. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
**acknowledgments
source and destination


4. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery


5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header


6. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
**session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect


7. Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
**1850
3431
3475


8. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts


9. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.


10. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535


11. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP
HTTP
DNS


12. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
**flow control
**low overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements


13. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size
acknowledgments


14. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port


15. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order


16. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
**identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media


17. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
**encapsulation
flow control
connectionless services
**session establishment
**numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery


18. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network


19. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.


20. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
**UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.


CCNA1 Chapter4

1

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
**Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.

2 After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
**80
1024
1728

3 Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
**source and destination

4 Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery

5

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6

Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
**session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect

7

Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
1850
**3431
3475

8 Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

9 During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

10 With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535

11 Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP
HTTP
DNS

12 What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
**low overhead
**connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements

13 What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size
acknowledgments

14 What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port

15 Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

16 Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
**identifies the communicating applications
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media

17 Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
**flow control
connectionless services
**session establishment
**numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery

18 Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport
network

19

Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.

20 Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
**TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

21

Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?

Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
**Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1

CCNA1 chapter 3

1. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
used by the server to resolve names


2. What are two forms of application layer software?
applications
syntax


3. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
FTP


4. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks?
decentralized resources
resource sharing without a dedicated server


5. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
application


6. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications?
acts as both a client and server within the same communication
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
does not require specialized software


7. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network


8. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model?
DNS, SMTP, POP


9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers?
MDA, MTA


10. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser?
HTTPS
HTTP


11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email?
receives email from the client's MUA
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers


12. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
does not support encryption


13. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function?
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access


14. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
DNS


15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80


16. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks?
initiate data exchanges
may upload data to servers


17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
SMB


18. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model?
centralized administration
security is easier to enforce


19. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type?
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.


20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to th


CCNA 1 - Chapter 3

1. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
used by the server to resolve names


2. What are two forms of application layer software?
applications
syntax


3. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
FTP


4. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks?
decentralized resources
resource sharing without a dedicated server


5. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
application


6. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications?
acts as both a client and server within the same communication
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
does not require specialized software


7. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network


8. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model?
DNS, SMTP, POP


9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers?
MDA, MTA


10. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser?
HTTPS
HTTP


11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email?
receives email from the client's MUA
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers


12. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
does not support encryption


13. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function?
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access


14. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
DNS


15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80


16. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks?
initiate data exchanges
may upload data to servers


17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
SMB


18. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model?
centralized administration
security is easier to enforce


19. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type?
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.


20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between conne service